Anyway, once the court decides that the standard for opression of minority shareholders doesn't apply here, it shows great deference to the board, even though their actions were clearly harmful to the minority.
So what is it about that test which justifies the imposition of a fiduciary duty? It shows when it's impossible to separate the interests of shareholder and director and officer: they're so commingled that a general fiduciary duty arises (i.e., you're no longer acting purely as an officer or a director).
Where does the court get the idea that a 1/3 shareholder necessarily gets a seat on the board? If he wanted that, couldn't he have negotiated this? The shareholders are within their rights to vote him out as a director.
But there was a classic squeeze-out, and if you violate those expectations (of not being squoze out), that's bad. But still, the focus here is on what the majority did.
Interesting: the court finds that this is oppressive, but not "so oppressive that extreme remedies are required." Where do they get off inventing levels of oppression? It's either there or it's not. The board either breached their fiduciary duty with the dividend policy or it didn't.
So the treatment of these issues in court is pretty random.
As a result, majority oppression is not generally an accepted concept. But it points out that shareholders don't generally owe one another a duty just by virtue of being shareholders.