What about aiding and abetting: one flavor of this would be sharing the purpose of abusing the children. That would be odd. So what about knowingly exposing the children to this risk? She can't have been in much doubt about this.
If there's no ambiguity then they don't get to interpret the statute and determine the legislative intent. So they reason that there is ambiguity here (i.e., no statutory definition of "subjects"). This means they can look in the dictionary and find that the fourth definition of "subjects" fits Ms. Williquette's situation.
This is a fairly passive standard for culpability: what mental state is required? Can you negligently subject a child to abuse? (i.e., if you're just unaware what might happen) It's sort of a delicate and difficult area: how are we going to judge what parents *should* know?
So how would she have fared under §948.03(4)? Elements:
So look at #3. What are some of the emotions you could use to exculpate yourself? Fear? Depression? Is love an emotion that would let you off ("I love him so much that I can't act in a way that would cost me his affection"). Does the action the person takes have to be an effective action? Is calling the cops good enough? What if they don't come in time?
What is the "mental harm" spoken of in §948.04? Look at §948.01(2). Aren't pretty much all parents guilty of a Class F Felony? How do you know if the child is feeling anxiety to a substantial degree?
Anyway, her defense under §948.03(4) would be the mental state element.
Note also that one view of the facts is that she did not fail to act. She did act: her act was to leave the children with the abuser. That's an act, and it led to abuse of the children. No problem. It's the "failure to act" element that is troublesome here.
Isn't there a fundamental problem with this statute, in the sense that there might *always* be reasonable doubt in prosecutions of this crime? Was a hung jury the right result here?
Victim /\ / \ / \ / \ / \ /__________\ Offender Place of Crime