This is an unsecured debt, not attached to anything. So if the former spouse doesn't know about this, what do we do? We balance between the estate executor having to track down creditors and creditors having to come forward. The creditor is an interested party. In Dane County, when you file for probate, there's a little letter box where you drop your notice to creditors, and the newspaper people come and take it and put into their legal notices (this is like $50 or something).
All of this went fine until Pope (see ch 1): a person died owing some money, and the creditor didn't get any special notice, although general public notice was given. For most legal matters, just a notice in the newspaper isn't enough to put parties on notice. The creditor claims this is a violation of due process, SCOTUS says yes: you're entitled to more proper service of notice (just having notice isn't enough: the creditor was the hospital where the person had died, so they absolutely had actual notice of the death, and they new they had a claim).
So we get § 859.48: the estate doesn't have to give actual notice, but if they fail to give notice to a creditor who could have been found by reasonable notice, that creditor gets some special treatment with respect to deadlines. Note that this might not be enough either-- it hasn't been tested in federal court. But so far so good.
And one reason (law in action footnote) that there's not a lot of creditor rights caselaw is that there's not a lot of litigation here: either people are getting paid, or the amounts are too minor to justify litigation. Also, exploit: you can stiff creditors this way by making lame notice-giving efforts and sitting on the asset until a year passes.
Anyway, do we take out of the marital or individual estate? Hard to know-- it depends whom you want to favor. It seems like it should come out of the individual side, as a logical rule, so go with that.
Anyway, don't underestimate the difference between a proceeding like this, and one where someone has to find out that they have been wronged, and then initiate the dispute. No wonder non-probate transfers are so attractive: there's less probability of disputes.
So it's not as simple as just a judge picking the result they want and then working backwards, but that can happen, so we need to be aware of it.
We don't know what really went on in these cases, but they show how judgments about estate planning behavior are very dependent on what other people think is normal. How much do we want courts making these evaluations (i.e., about what looks right)?
As a basic matter of law, WI doesn't like these: every will must be witnessed. But, because of § 853,05, if it's from another state (and holographic wills are allowed there), it's OK.
Why should we like them? Because if we know the intent of the person, why bother with the technical rules. On the other hand, we don't want people just casually making wills all over the place. We want caution. We don't want accidental wills. The trade-off, of course, is that we are trading false positives for false negatives: people fail to make proper wills otherwise.
You can understand who bears a burden by the language of the statute: a will can incorporate another document if all of the following apply. This means that the proponent of the document has to show that all the conditions are met. Or, on the other hand, the statute might say that incorporated documents are valid unless a, b, c.
So we know the status of the document is questionable, and that means probably incorporation won't work because the burden is on the proponent of the document.
But the question is really "does Friend get the stuff?" Well, if nobody questions the incorporation, then sure.
Who is the decisionmaker here, really? The spouse, presumably. Therefore, always ask yourself: how does the decisionmaker fel about this? Do we need to have a dispute?
And why should we presume the document was changed? Just because we can't prove that it's not, we're not required to assume that it was.
§ 853.32(2) : if the document transfers tangible personal property, then it doesn't have to be in existence at the time of the will. This really bypasses all the fancy attestation stuff.
This is for letters like "I want Charlie to get grandpa's gold watch." This isn't strictly legal, but people do it so much, and we're never going to stop them, so we make a statute saying it's OK.
Note that we don't know whether this document is signed and dated (we could get by without the date, but we don't know if it's signed). But what's tangible personal property: the poster and the car for sure. The cash, though is fungible. Intangible. If the document said "the $2,500 that are stapled to this document," maybe that would be tangible, but really the whole point of money is that it's not tangible. And the certificate moreso: just holding the certificate doesn't make you the owner of the shares. He can get the certificate, but not the stock itself.
So given that this document is kind of contaminated (i.e., it mixes tangible and intangible property), does that invalidate it entirely? The statute just says "if it lists tangible personal property," so it seems like that's not a prohibition against listing other things. But if you wanted to object to this transfer, that might be an argument you'd try to make, and maybe someone would buy it.
Part B: would it matter in a jurisdiction that had adopted UPC § 2-503? Generally, this would be a codicil, which requires execution formalities, but under § 2-503, we'll waive those formalities if we have testamentary intent. So probably this would still work, even though it's not technically the doctrine of incorporation.