So they note (citing Henderson, a professor) that we've been chipping away at contract law, over time. We're willing to enforce less and less rigorously defined things. Note that Hoffman is cited in the restatement examples, so it must be a good example of §90.
So if you have definite things, you'd have a contract. So we have some disagreement on what represents consideration here (i.e., was she supposed to put up money or something, for that promised agreement? We don't say ever what the "particular skills and contributions" are. Courts differ on the degree of detail needed to qualify under §90. But if you have a lot of details, you've got a contract, and you don't need this doctrine.
Not only that, but there are a lot of cases (at least in WI) where §90 doesn't seem to get applied. See the Clark Oil case which says that §90 only gets applied when there's a contribution in cash. Strange and unexpected.
Retail gas dealers make the mistake of their lives: they try to get a federal statute, which would be enforced across all juristictions. It has a mile-wide loophole: you can't cancel except for cause, but you just have to negotiate in good faith about renewal. So they make very short-term agreements. The problem is that this pre-empts all the state statutes. It looked like a great victory, but it wound up being a defeat: can they cancel you if you don't keep your station open 24 hours? if you want to do repairs and not run a convenience mart?
So then there's litigation, on a state-by-state basis about how far the federal statute blocks state regulations.
In the meantime, the states start expanding their statutes to all non-auto franchises.
Her ruling: the statute isn't retroactive, and must be construed narrowly (i.e., constitutionally). It applies to a statewide termination without good cause. The statute has no exception for a non-discriminatory pullout; it's something the legislature is deemed to know about. We've got to give the dealers clout: it's not perpetual care, but Walgreens is going to have to buy the franchisees out.
Note that the passage of this act was tricky. Republicans didn't want to have to vote on it: they all had retail franchisees as powerful constituents, but they didn't want to vote against big business. So they tried to keep it in committee, but then there was an end-run around the process, and there had not been any time for compromise, so the statute got passed in its strongest possible form (very pro-franchisee).
Walgreen is not required to stay in business here, because specific performance is at the discretion of the court, and it would be too much of a burden here. So the case must be settled by damages. The franchisors who want to leave are therefore to buy out the franchisees, since they can' just cancel them.
So how do you figure the amount of damages caused by the loss of your franchise? What period of time would be "reasonable" for measuring lost profits? Note that lawyers fees come with this statute (judges rarely award the amount that they would like to bill). They come up with over $400K, but that is divided among 11 plaintiffs.
Note that the damages are based on the "fall in business" precipitated across the board, based on the books of all the plaintiffs. This line of reasoning would probably not have worked if it had not been a class actions.
Management does not have absolute rights: it traces its rights back to the contract. The worker doesn't have to be an expert or hire a lawyer-- the union can help out. Also, the remedies are different (reinstatement with back pay is the basic remedy).
Aren't all cases going to be 2-1 (i.e., the public member will always decide the case, because the union rep always sides with the worker, and the management rep always sides with management). This differs a little in the sense that arbitrators are subject matter experts (or at least are knowledgeable about the consequences of their decisions). There is also control over the arbitrators: if they are lame, they won't get asked back (not like judges). Also, arbitrators will start asking questions (i.e., less procedural formality)-- they are not neutral presences.
Fitzpatrick: you can't specifically perform an employment contract. But here, re-instatement is pretty much a specific performance order (employer: you must continue to employ her!). In court, you'd just get damages (i.e., lost wages). Here, there can be compromise (reinstatement, but no back pay).
Note that she PASSED the initial inspection. They only think she's got a wig because they think they saw her with long hair on her layover. But maybe she was wearing a wig on the layover! What is the fight really about? Privacy? Wigs? Why does TWA bother with this? It's about authority. She wasn't a brand-new employee or anything like that: she was an international attendant. She knew the ropes (i.e., how serious this or that rule was). Maybe this isn't 100% her grievance-- perhaps is it hand-picked by the union out of many to make a point.
Oh. Turns out that she was the union president. That changes things a little bit. They are arguing about who can say. Sutds Terkel Working: recommended book. Essentially "stewardess" was a job for people to do while waiting to get married. Stew School: includes 1 week of makeup and cosmetics, classes on how to smoke a cigarette and whether to let a customer light it for you. Average age was 26, but in some shops false eyelashes or nails were mandatory. This was a culture somewhat in flux, for obvious reasons.
So in a collective bargaining situation, the employees at least have some power. Note that this case serves far more than just what its facts support as an isolated instance: it legitimizes making this topic an issue in the next round of contract bargaining.
Just as a general note, the question of appropriate dress tends to be highly litigated.
If it's a franchise, you can't terminate without good cause. If you're talking about someone with a lot of bargaining power (i.e., skilled CEO, etc.), it's hard to terminate them: because they require good contracts. What about the rest of the people? Employment at will.
There are exceptions to the more-than-a-year-has-to-be-in-writing clause of the statute of frauds (i.e., the promisee might die within a year). These are kind of a long shot, though.
So the plaintiff here alleges a one-year commitment in the oral contract. The trial court wants to enforce the contract, but needs to do some gymnastics. They claim it's a unilateral contract, and performance didn't start until he gets to Hawaii. In other words, what the dealership was bargaining for was not the plaintiff's promise to come to HI, but his work, so that didn't start until he got there. Supreme court says no: this was a promise-for-a- promise contract, and the contract was formed on the phone prior to his arrival, and therefore more than a year ago.
However, they find that the principle of Restatement §90 is an attractive exception (this gets used a lot of places, huh?). The principle here is §139: application of §90 to the statute of frauds. So again, if reliance is foreseeable, and injustice can be avoided only by enforcement, we might be ok.
Here, a lot of plaintiff's commitment (forfeiture of former job, moving to HI, etc.) doesn't directly benefit the defendant. Certainly the reliance was reasonable and foreseeable.
Note also that most jobs have a trial period built in. Maybe these guys would make a year commitment, though, based on his experience.
Some courts reject this line of reasoning, and apply the statute of frauds strictly. Note that UCC §2-201 (statute of frauds) has its own exceptions. Could Restatement §90 work in conjuction with this? Well UCC §1-103 picks up a lot of the stuff (infancy, duress, etc.).
So this is a classic argument that is a tie: if some exceptions are stated, does this mean that they are the ONLY exceptions, or that there could be others as well?
Also, how far are judges out of bounds when they start making up law? Well, that's where the common law comes from. Hart & Sachs (sp?) approach, out of Harvard Law, emphasizes separation of legislative and judiciary powers, and it's very popular. We demonize activist judges. Even Posner, however, recognizes that you can't be a judge without making choices. Nobody wants to live in a world with 100% strict Statute of Frauds (i.e., iron-clad rule that agreements must be in writing), because injustice results, but all the exceptions make this a sophist's game, which is not so hot either.
NOTE: the employment here was for a definite term! Without this, you have employment at will, and that's a different ballgame.
§90 doesn't apply here, they say, because the promise was performed. We apply the same rules, but the results are different.
Consider non-competes: they are unenforceable in CA, but in WI they're enforceable if they are reasonable in duration and scope. They tend to apply to executives, scientists, and hairdressers.
If you want maximum recovery, you like torts more than contracts. The plaintiff claims he was fired because he refused to pressure dealers into price-fixing (i.e., taking some loss on gasoline sales to cover for surplus gasoline production as a byproduct of other petrochemical refining, like fuel oil).
So this is a jump beyond Peterman (refusal to perjure), but it takes the extra jump of introducing tort.
Remedies are the real issue here-- the Brockmeyer criteria are met. They say reinstatement is the primary remedy. (front pay issues: for how long would the plaintiff remained at the job? would there have been raises?) Remanded for the circuit court to determine if reinstatement is feasible.
Abrahamson wants to clarify issues surrounding the strengths and weaknesses of reinstatement as a feasible remedy. How could an employer make reinstatement infeasible? Do away with the job (or its title).
One day the bank manager runs out, pursued by a knife-wielding guy, screaming for help. He knows her (having delivered money there for years), and leaves the truck to help her. He disarms the guy, saves her, is a hero. Is fired.
There's no legal requirement to go wrestle people with knives. The employer's command (stay in the truck) is perfectly consistent with the law, not in opposition to it. This is a classic difference between moral and legal. So there's no statute or constitutional provision.
How does he win? The court looks into the structure of the WA law, and sees the protection of human life all over the place (murder is illegal, etc.). So this is an exception to the rule.
Obviously, the Loomis PR people were asleep on the job.